Could it possibly be that Washington, D.C. is the United States' very first home rule city?
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Could it possibly be that Washington, D.C. is the United States' very first home rule city?
I think the Five Boroughs precedes DC (1629). [New York City.] I believe that Colorado may actually supersede NY and Washington DC. DC is ornamental in the sense that if there is a disaster Government will resume quickly in Littleton.
Would the 5 burroughs of New York suffice as a Federal City rather than a creature of New York in particular? I could see how a home-rule city in Colorado territory could supersede DC. Perhaps St. Louis, Missouri might have a special place?
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I think possibly the fantasy constructions serve us like dreams. They hold up so long as they are coherent with the law.
In other words "reality" is just a place where we agree in some faculty of peace, even when warring. I prefer building the thread of reality on my own heritage but the St Louis history looks very interesting. The succession is fringe (avoiding British Manorial Law) but proves consistent.
Of course being a Patroon descendant (perpetual inheritance - ยง6) means that I hold a bias.
P.S. Dr. Linda Darlene GADBOIS wrote a text comment about dreaming:
Quote:
We create the reality of dreams as a co-creation with various sources and influences that form modifications just like we do in our waking state. The Laws that govern the energetic realm are universal in nature and permeate all levels of consciousness as a series of analogies and correspondences. The communication from higher realms to lower ones acts as a step-down process similar to translations from one language born out of a particular culture into another language formed by a different cultural conditioning. So not only are the symbols and images essentially different, their meanings in terms of the conceptualized realities they represent are also different. So, the translation has to be an intuitive process that forms imagery into personal experience (imaginary) as a primary means of forming an even more unique interpretation that personalizes the message making it ideal to the individual who acts to co-create it through the process of conceiving it.
And perhaps as long as they are self-consistent.Quote:
Originally Posted by David Merrill
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Regarding British manorial law, perhaps avoiding British Manorial law is to avoid the provincial laws of the Roman Empire? With the separation from British allegiance in 1775 (Prohibitory Acts) that would seem to also have brought with it a break with British manorial law. Could creation of a Federal State in 1787 been a tactic to perpetuate British manorial law? Otherwise, how could the Magna Charta have any applicability at all far, far across the Atlantic? *grin*
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