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I'm wondering about this theory and just shooting it out there.
A company who claims a salary expense on gross sales, taking advantage of lower taxable income, has to file (w4/1099) with the SSA. However, what if the company pays you out of after-tax dollars?
Include my demand into the job contract and it would seem to me that both are covered in this scenario.
Thoughts?
Huh? A company doesn't necessarily have a salary expense - could be just a guy selling online. But let's say that guy hires you as salesman at $50,000/yr contract (independent, not a salary expense). He asks you to fill out a Form W9 where you agree to be a "U.S. person" so he can send you a year-end 1099.
What's your theory again?
Richard Earl hasn't been seen in years, Lorne. Looks like we'll have to speculate on his theory. When he states both are covered he may be saying if both company and worker are redeeming lawful money then both can avoid the banksters tax. Win-win.