Any TRANSACTION amount that is not demanded to be redeemed in lawful money creates a nexus/contract with FED because those amounts USED FRNs... IMO.
That tax return shows one is double-minded, and gives probable cause for being called "frivolous".
Please explain WHY you are NOT demanding lawful money for the GROSS wages amount?
I believe the State was giving a clue about this "GROSS" error in the excerpt below from
post15868:
We had better pay attention to their letters... they
may actually be trying to help us!
Then, to be consistent, each of the
derivative WITHHOLDING TRANSACTIONS AMOUNTS should also be demanded to be in lawful money.
Yes, I know that total amount of lawful money demands will then be greater that the actual GROSS wages amount, making the Adjusted GROSS to be a negative amount.
But isn't that legitimate?
Don't all of those amounts that were
presumed to be in FRNs need to be adjusted back out, to reduce the national debt accordingly?
BTW: This 1040 accounting approach has worked for the past 3 years, so it is NOT just theory.