I have heard that some courts have ruled this "inviolate" "right" can be waived -- but, can it be waived by contract? I would think the answer must be a resounding "NO", as "inviolate" is quite clear. That is, for any contract made within the situs of the Constitution.

So if a court ruled that something "inviolate" can be waived, would that not be an admission they deem the situs of the contract and/or parties to be without the authority ordained by and of the Constitution? IOW, foreign?