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Being an "idiot" (outsider) of the federal tax code, take this for what its worth. But if I was one who held that office with that income subject to that code, as the orginal poster's comment suggests, one could look at the Title 26 Section 83 and ask a few questions. How does Section 83 operate in your conclusion that I owe tax on my labor? Where is your authority to exclude from any money or property the value of my labor? Then show a few court cases that demonstrate someone may be misinterpreting the term "any property". Those may be some difficult questions to answer by any agent of Trust #62 out of Puerto RICO, since Trust #62 never applies it. If you ever do get a response, please post it for our amusement.
This guy explains Section 83 argument:
http://youtu.be/c1u8KjfLX1o?t=7m
Last edited by Casper; 08-15-14 at 12:00 AM.
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