Thanks for your feedback, shikamaru. Very much appreciated.
The first definition seems to seal the deal. And that last case of the definition also seems to fit the instance in which I would like to use it. "In many cases when there is no remedy at law, one will be afforded in equity."
I suppose it all depends on whose law one is using. Fictions at law, of course, would prefer us to use their law; I, however, would prefer not to use their law. Choice of law and jurisdiction being the main source for many of the problems that suitors like us encounter these days. It just seems like there's no holding these fictional public actors accountable using their law. (Well, there is, if you can get them to go after their own.)
As I recall from Brobst's piece, he described "our law" (as it pertains to "payment" of debt as opposed to "discharge" of debt) as being rooted in the substance of the medium we use as "money," that is, gold and silver. When the corporate government abandoned the Gold Standard in 1933 and then again in 1971 when Nixon closed the government's gold window, it effectively left us without "our law" as our law (the common [sense] law) is based in substance.
I'm just not wanting to get my connotations mixed up between the way certain people use these terms in their treatises and essays and how it is recognize "in law." As we all know, definitions COUNT when we're using these terms in our legal documents.
I'll stick with "at law" for now (until I see evidence to the contrary). I was just interested to hear how you came about to be using this term and recommending its use to us. Thanks.