Remedy - lawful money solution

[itsmymoney]

1040s were filed for the past 4 consecutive years, as I state on http://1040relief.blogspot.com/

IMO, ALL IRC terms apply only if FRNs are/were being used.

So, do NOT use any of those terms relating to LMD transactions, and derivatives thereof.

I have read your 1040-blogspot many times before but did not refer to it prior to my post, so my apologies for that. Otherwise I would have recognized the filing method (1040) for FOUR years running! Wow. If you were not aware of the ASED (Assessment Statute Expiration Date) relative to your filings (assuming TY 2014 was 1040-filed) then you are free and clear for any non-assessed 'income' taxes (if due) for your 2011 tax year (filed 2012, i.e. 3 years post would be April 15 2015 assuming you filed on time in 2012). So IRS had THREE YEARS to assess that 2011 TY return (and the years following, filed in the same LM-demanded manner) and has fallen silent. That is VERY telling evidence.

Here is how I see it relative to 1040: "wages" is "Federal income" based on "income" defined as gain or profit from certain activities and privileges where the "privilege" is the usage of FRN's that incurs an excise "income tax". If you opt out of the FRS, there is no "privilege" gained or profited from...thus, no "income" therefore no "income tax".

I know my prior post was lengthy, but I'm curious if you agree with my interpretation of HJR-192? (the blue responses).

As always, the education is priceless. Thank you for helping all of us. Bless you.
imm