What exactly makes Lawful Money untaxable ?

[Keith Alan]

Interesting perspective. The diversity of citizenship would seem to create a distinction between profit and gain (income) and compensation - an honest day's wages. Whereas if you endorse private credit from the Fed, you are paying for the use of that credit.

You prompt a new perspective overlaid on the old paradigm so I hope it makes sense; what I just said.

I wonder if the diversity of citizenship is caused by a person's choice of sources for money - receiving income from private credit, or being paid with public money.

[David Merrill]

I wonder if the diversity of citizenship is caused by a person's choice of sources for money - receiving income from private credit, or being paid with public money.

Exactly.

Your signature bond on the backside of a paycheck effectively adds your signature to the front of the bills as being obliged to perform - a first lien on all the property rights discharged through that bill. In other words bill and billing Information should always be construed in terms of indictment.


They always say Bill of Indictment. Or True Bill.

[Keith Alan]

Exactly.

Your signature bond on the backside of a paycheck effectively adds your signature to the front of the bills as being obliged to perform - a first lien on all the property rights discharged through that bill. In other words bill and billing Information should always be construed in terms of indictment.


They always say Bill of Indictment. Or True Bill.

So the 16th amendment's claim on incomes, from whatever source derived, applies only to income from private credit. And money received in the form of lawful money isn't income, but rather one is simply being paid. Two different kinds of persons; the first receiving income and engaged in the business of factoring for his principal's profit, while the other is merely being paid for goods and/or services rendered.

It's the diversity in citizenship that appeals most to me. My entire journey to learning about lawful money began in earnest after the Affordable Care Act was passed. Common sense told me it applied only to certain kind of persons. I have a profound moral objection to becoming unequally yoked in a pool of citizens who do not trust the Creator to provide for their needs.

Thank you, David. I can't tell you how much I appreciate your willingness to teach this subject. I do count it as a blesssing.

Keith

[Chex]

By the beginning of the 20th century, greater cooperation began to grow between the State and federal governments. Soon, the federal government began to accumulate more power. It was early in this period that a federal income tax was implemented, first during the Civil War and then permanently with the Sixteenth Amendment in 1913.

Before this, the states played a larger role in government. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/States%...d_World_War_II

WHAT IS DOMESTICATION?
In Delaware, domestication is the transfer of an existing non-United States entity to an entity in this State, changing the jurisdiction of the company.

This will allow you to take advantage of all of the benefits of being a Delaware company while retaining your original incorporation date that the company first came into existence in the non-United States jurisdiction and continuing to be deemed the same entity.

You can also change your company’s business structure at the same time if your attorney or accountant has advised you that it would be best for your individual circumstances. http://www.delawareintercorp.com/t-d...px#Domoverview

Definitions
When determining the country for which we are obligated to report and collect information on your behalf, the following definitions will apply.

US person or entity is:

• US citizen (regardless of residence)
• US legal resident or "Green Card Holder" (regardless of residence)
• US Substantial Presence resident: A person who qualifies as a resident for US tax purposes because they have met the substantial presence test as defined by the Internal Revenue Code (Refer to IRS Publication 519, US Tax Guide for Aliens)
• US formed business entity
• US formed organization
• US operations of a foreign entity
http://www.interactivebrokers.com/en/?f=tax

All US citizens, Green Card holders and other legal residents are considered US persons by the IRS and are required to complete Form W-9, Request for Taxpayer Identification Number and Certification, when they apply to open an account. Entities formed or operating in the United States are also treated as US persons. If you are an individual, include your social security number (SSN). If you are an entity, your employer identification number (EIN) is required.

US resident aliens will also be required to complete Form W-9 and provide a social security number (SSN). A resident alien is considered a US resident if one of the following criteria has been met: you are a lawful permanent resident issued a resident alien registration card ("Green Card"), or you are an individual with a valid nonimmigrant visa who resides in the US for a required period of time and you have established a substantial presence. Refer to IRS Publication 519, US Tax Guide for Aliens, for further information.

Generally, there is no US tax withholding is required from the account of US persons or entities. However, the IRS may direct us to withhold on the accounts of US persons or entities on dividends, interest, and proceeds.

IRS Circular 230 Notice: These statements are provided for information purposes only, are not intended to constitute tax advice which may be relied upon to avoid penalties under any federal, state, local or other tax statutes or regulations, and do not resolve any tax issues in your favor.

And here you go http://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-pdf/fw9.pdf?portlet=3

Under penalties of perjury, I certify that:

1. The number shown on this form is my correct taxpayer identification number (or I am waiting for a number to be issued to me), and

2. I am not subject to backup withholding because:
(a) I am exempt from backup withholding, or
(b) I have not been notified by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) that I am subject to backup withholding as a result of a failure to report all interest or dividends, or
(c) the IRS has notified me that I am no longer subject to backup withholding, and

3. I am a U.S. citizen or other U.S. person (defined below).

Certification instructions. You must cross out item 2 above if you have been notified by the IRS that you are currently subject to backup withholding because you have failed to report all interest and dividends on your tax return.

For real estate transactions, item 2 does not apply. For mortgage interest paid, acquisition or abandonment of secured property, cancellation of debt, contributions to an individual retirement arrangement (IRA), and generally, payments other than interest and dividends, you are not required to sign the certification, but you must provide your correct TIN.

See the instructions on page 4.

Uncle Ben: All non-US persons and entities are required to complete IRS Form W-8 to certify your country of tax residence and to establish whether you qualify for a reduced rate of withholding when opening an account. Forms W-8 are not provided to the IRS.

Valid Form W-8
Forms W-8 must be resubmitted every three years unless you have or apply for a US Taxpayer ID (ITIN or EIN) and provide the number on your Form W-8, in which case there is no need to resubmit.

Generally, tax is withheld at a rate of 30% on payments of US source stock dividends and substitute payments in lieu. The rate of withholding may be reduced if there is a tax treaty between your country of tax residence and the US.

[mikecz]

So the 16th amendment's claim on incomes, from whatever source derived, applies only to income from private credit. And money received in the form of lawful money isn't income, but rather one is simply being paid. Two different kinds of persons; the first receiving income and engaged in the business of factoring for his principal's profit, while the other is merely being paid for goods and/or services rendered.

It's the diversity in citizenship that appeals most to me. My entire journey to learning about lawful money began in earnest after the Affordable Care Act was passed. Common sense told me it applied only to certain kind of persons. I have a profound moral objection to becoming unequally yoked in a pool of citizens who do not trust the Creator to provide for their needs.

Thank you, David. I can't tell you how much I appreciate your willingness to teach this subject. I do count it as a blesssing.

Keith

http://usa-the-republic.com/revenue/.../Contents.html

"Income" is legally defined as a corporate gain of profit in the Internal Revenue Code. Nowhere is there any different definition.
Anytime the Internal Revenue Code mentions the word "income" it is talking about corporate income.

I think the book, link above, misses the whole lawful money point entirely, but the read is incredibly insightful. It states the IRS is nonconstitutional because it is not taxing the individual (whose rights are protected within the constitution), it can tax the "person" or corporate entity by means of an indirect excise tax, basically a tax on not directly the companies profits, but a tax on the activity or privilege of operating within that business which the amount of activity is measured by the corporate entities profits.

"Take the alcohol tax for example. The tax is not on the alcohol itself (property), but on the manufacture or sale (activities) of the alcohol. (a government granted privilege requiring a license) Or a corporation tax. The tax is not on the corporation itself (property), or its income (also property), but on the privilege of doing business as a corporation, which privilege (not a right) is also granted by the government."

Well, from this book, and this website, I'm finding two reasons the IRS can tax us. 1.Using or contracting with the federal reserve and willfully partaking in the bonding process. 2.As this book states, operating as a business, in this case a "person" and not acting as an individual. All or our transactions are assumed to operate in the corporate arena, therefore are corporate in nature.


I'm thinking both points do have a correlation, and maybe the second is the truth, just not getting there in the correct manner. Indeed, since the constitution protects our INDIVIDUAL right, especially of private property, both points 1.willfully engaging in a private contract with the fed, which could be construed as in the corporate arena 2. Being assumed to be a "person"-as defined by the IRS as a corporate entity (freeman theory), it is nonconstitutional, because corporations operate with privileges and benefits, not with rights. I guess either way you look at it, demanding lawful money takes you out of the private contract (corporate arena), and forces that lawful money to be deemed private property, which is protected by the constitution. The only way the gov't can tax private property is with a 1 time direct tax, with apportionment. ("INDIRECT TAX. Indirect taxes are able to be passed on to someone else INDIRECTLY (excise tax, ie; alcohol tax or corporation tax). An indirect tax can be thought of a simply an activity or privilege tax. It is on something you do. Exercising a privilege.")

http://usa-the-republic.com/revenue/...ory/Chap3.html

Ok, well, there you go...

[allodial]

I suspect the tax issue centers upon the bank transaction as relates to laws concerning banking or bills of exchange rather than solely on type of money. As in the difference in being the source of credit vs being a recipient of someone else's credit.

[salsero]

I understand that IF lawful money has been claimed properly, it becomes untaxable for income taxes purposes with a reduction shown on line 21 on the form 1040. Does this also hold true for SOCIAL SECURITY TAXES on employee wages [W-2 wages] and Schedule C [indpendent contractor]? If this is the case [non-taxable], how would one go about showing the credit on the 1040? Thanks Tony