And so this is why the question: Where is the proof that Abraham was under Mosaic law? Where is there proof of the Melchezidek and the Mosaic-Levitical systems being the same? Why are so many people comfortable imposing ex post facto laws on the past? Consider, if the age of consent in the State of Florida were 21, then after some time people might start reading the Bible or other texts through the mental lens of what is legal under the laws of the State of Florida. I am unaware of Abraham being under the Mosaic-Levitical system which did not come about until hundreds years after his life.
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