So seizure laws are de-facto, constitution is de-jure, because we buy a car with de-facto money (private credit) it's subject to seizure acts, so if we had a bill of sale for the car as paid in lawful money (public) the bill would be evidence of what jurisdiction the car sits in and should be exempt from seizure de-facto acts.

Is my thinking correct here? Is the "demand for lawful money" redemption from State seizure?