The error with their logic is that it hopes to cast the into oblivion the commandment "...have no
other gods before me". If the doctrine of the Hebrews was "monotheistic" in the modern sense of the term (see quote at bottom of this post) then why would there be a prohibition on having NO
OTHER gods if there were actually no
other gods to
worship. Foreign judges, foreign rulers and foreign deities were referred to as gods although in some cases 'idol gods'. Someone can hold drugs, money, seemingly wealthy men, seemingly powerful men, steak sauce or sexual pleasure to be a god or an idol.
Does that the one named at Exodus 3:14-15 equate himself with that all which he creates? If 'the god' of the Canaanites was also 'the god' of Israel, would there have been either conflict or controversy? What would the Mt. Hermon pact makers of Enoch 6 argue? Of course if you take the pantheistic view,
worshiping a statute, worshiping a symbol,
worshiping a graven image of that which is in heaven becomes 100% Parve-Kosher-Tasty-Fresh because...pantheism.
He/They made two great lights (which some regard to be symbolic of two classes of rulers). However, does that mean utterly equating him with His/Their creation? The error of pantheism has one worshiping the creature as if it were the creator (distinction failure).
re: Worship or Veneration of Mary
Readers might be quite interested in the fact that in Aramaic the word '
marya' or 'mary' means ....
(surprise!!!!)
...
'lord'. Of course her proper Hebrew name is
Miriam.
Source of table: click here.
Related:
Panentheism
Pantheism