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Thread: Deviant Oath? - Not a judge!

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  1. #1
    Sarcasm/cynicism alert:

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    "The idea of many pools is an illusion, we all swim in the same pool...

    because we all call it...

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    ....'the Pool'. It must be the same. There is only one pool!"


    Do you dare disagree!?!?

    *** END OF SARCASM/CYNICISM ***

    The error with their logic is that it hopes to cast the into oblivion the commandment "...have no other gods before me". If the doctrine of the Hebrews was "monotheistic" in the modern sense of the term (see quote at bottom of this post) then why would there be a prohibition on having NO OTHER gods if there were actually no other gods to worship. Foreign judges, foreign rulers and foreign deities were referred to as gods although in some cases 'idol gods'. Someone can hold drugs, money, seemingly wealthy men, seemingly powerful men, steak sauce or sexual pleasure to be a god or an idol.

    I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the Lord do all these things.
    Does that the one named at Exodus 3:14-15 equate himself with that all which he creates? If 'the god' of the Canaanites was also 'the god' of Israel, would there have been either conflict or controversy? What would the Mt. Hermon pact makers of Enoch 6 argue? Of course if you take the pantheistic view, worshiping a statute, worshiping a symbol, worshiping a graven image of that which is in heaven becomes 100% Parve-Kosher-Tasty-Fresh because...pantheism.

    And God made two great lights; the greater light to rule the day, and the lesser light to rule the night: he made the stars also. Genesis 1:16
    He/They made two great lights (which some regard to be symbolic of two classes of rulers). However, does that mean utterly equating him with His/Their creation? The error of pantheism has one worshiping the creature as if it were the creator (distinction failure).

    re: Worship or Veneration of Mary
    Readers might be quite interested in the fact that in Aramaic the word 'marya' or 'mary' means ....

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    (surprise!!!!)

    ...'lord'. Of course her proper Hebrew name is Miriam.

    Attachment 4549
    Source of table: click here.

    And Elijah came unto all the people, and said, How long halt ye between two opinions? if the LORD {name} be God, follow him: but if Baal {actually means 'lord'}, then follow him. And the people answered him not a word. 1 Kings 18
    The first commandment, then, does not constitute any sort of denial of the existence of other gods or of the divine council in Israelite religion. The point of the command, like so many other declarations in the Torah and elsewhere, is that Israelites were to have Yahweh as their sole object of worship.

    ...

    "Monotheism" as a term was coined in the 17th century not as an antonym to "polytheism," but to "atheism." A monotheist, then, was a person who believed there was a God, not someone who believed there was only one spiritual entity that could or should be named by the letters G-O-D. This understanding of the term has been lost in contemporary discourse, and so it would be pointless to call for its re-introduction. --Monotheism, Polytheism, Monolatry, or Henotheism? (Heiser) pp. 27
    Related:
    Panentheism
    Pantheism
    Last edited by allodial; 09-25-16 at 02:57 AM.
    All rights reserved. Without prejudice. No liability assumed. No value assured.

    "The object in life is not to be on the side of the majority, but to escape finding oneself in the ranks of the insane." -- Marcus Aurelius
    "It is the glory of God to conceal a thing: but the honour of kings is to search out a matter." Proverbs 25:2
    Prove all things; hold fast that which is good. Thess. 5:21.

  2. #2
    Quote Originally Posted by allodial View Post
    The error with their logic is that it hopes to cast the into oblivion the commandment "...have no other gods before me". If the doctrine of the Hebrews was "monotheistic" in the modern sense of the term (see quote at bottom of this post) then why would there be a prohibition on having NO OTHER gods if there were actually no other gods to worship. Foreign judges, foreign rulers and foreign deities were referred to as gods although in some cases 'idol gods'. Someone can hold drugs, money, seemingly wealthy men, seemingly powerful men, steak sauce or sexual pleasure to be a god or an idol.


    Does that the one named at Exodus 3:14-15 equate himself with that all which he creates? If 'the god' of the Canaanites was also 'the god' of Israel, would there have been either conflict or controversy? What would the Mt. Hermon pact makers of Enoch 6 argue? Of course if you take the pantheistic view, worshiping a statute, worshiping a symbol, worshiping a graven image of that which is in heaven becomes 100% Parve-Kosher-Tasty-Fresh because...pantheism.


    He/They made two great lights (which some regard to be symbolic of two classes of rulers). However, does that mean utterly equating him with His/Their creation? The error of pantheism has one worshiping the creature as if it were the creator (distinction failure).

    re: Worship or Veneration of Mary
    Readers might be quite interested in the fact that in Aramaic the word 'marya' or 'mary' means ....

    (surprise!!!!)

    ...'lord'. Of course her proper Hebrew name is Miriam.

    Source of table: click here.



    Related:
    Panentheism
    Pantheism
    Psalm 82

    God Presides in the Great Assembly

    1 {A Psalm of Asaph.} God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods.

    2 How long will ye judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked? Selah.

    3 Defend the poor and fatherless: do justice to the afflicted and needy.

    4 Deliver the poor and needy: rid them out of the hand of the wicked.

    5 They know not, neither will they understand; they walk on in darkness: all the foundations of the earth are out of course.

    6 I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High.

    7 But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes.

    8 Arise, O God, judge the earth: for thou shalt inherit all nations.

    Deuteronomy 32:8

    8 When the Most High gave to the nations their inheritance, when he divided mankind, he fixed the borders of the peoples according to the number of the sons of God.

    "Moses' farewell song in Deuteronomy 32:1-43 is one of the more intriguing portions of Deuteronomy, and has received a good deal of attention among scholars, primarily for its poetic features, archaic orthography and morphology, and text-critical problems. Among the textual variants present in the Song of Moses, one in Deut. 32:8 stands out as particularly fascinating. The verse is rendered as follows in the NASB:

    “When the Most High gave the nations their inheritance, when He separated the sons of man, He set the boundaries of the peoples according to the number of the sons of Israel.”

    Controversy over the text of this verse concerns the last phrase, “according to the number of the sons of Israel,” which reflects the reading of the Masoretic Text of the Hebrew Bible (hereafter, MT). The MT reading is also reflected in several later revisions of the Septuagint (hereafter, LXX): a manuscript of Aquila (Codex X), Symmachus (also Codex X), and Theodotion."

    "The debate over which text is to be preferred is more than a fraternal spat among textual critics. The notion that the nations of the world were geographically partitioned and owe their terrestrial identity to the sovereign God takes the reader back to the Table of Nations in Genesis 10-11, and two details there regarding God's apportionment of the earth that are important for the context of the textual debate in Deuteronomy 32:8. First, the Table of Nations catalogs seventy nations, but Israel is not included in the inventory."

    "Israel alone is Yahweh’s portion and so is not numbered among the seventy other nations. The referent of the number seventy, the "sons of Israel" (in MT), initially seemed understandable enough, for both Gen 46:27 and Exo. 1:5 state that 70 members of Jacob's family went down to Egypt in the days of Joseph. Little thought was given, however, to the logic of the correlation: How is it that the number of the pagan nations was determined in relation to an entity (Israel) or individuals (Jacob and his household) that did not yet exist? Even if one contends that the correlation was in the mind of God prior to Israel's existence and only recorded much later, what possible point would there be behind connecting the pagan Gentile nations numerically with the children of promise? On the other hand, what could possibly be meant by the textual option that created a correspondence between the number of the nations in Genesis 10-11 and heavenly beings?"

    source

    Exodus 20:3-6

    3 Thou shalt have no other gods before me.

    4 Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness of any thing that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth:

    5 Thou shalt not bow down thyself to them, nor serve them: for I the LORD thy God am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation of them that hate me;

    6 And shewing mercy unto thousands of them that love me, and keep my commandments.
    Last edited by BLBereans; 09-25-16 at 02:24 PM.

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