I was reading the Gold Reserve Act o 1934, and came across a few things that piqued my interest; there were also a couple things that were confusing to me.

The Gold Reserve Act > 48 Stat. 337 sec. 2(b)(1) is found the same wording as is 12 U.S.C. sec. 411. Could this be used against banks that are being difficult when a customer is demanding his transactions be redeemed in lawful money, or is it irrelevant because it is stating how sec. 16 of the Federal Reserve Act will be amended?

The first few sections have a lot of talk of redemption and lawful money, but it was hard for me to follow.
Sec. 2(b)(2) "...bills of exchange endorsed by a member bank..." does this mean citizens are member banks of the fed because citizens endorse their bills of exchange (checks), or is it referring to member banks meaning that not all entities endorsing bills of exchange are member banks. I remember reading that the individual is in fact a member bank, but I cannot remember where I read it.. or if the source was reliable. I also don't understand the paragraph stating that the Fed. can reduce their liability by issuing Fed. notes to member banks and agents.

The section stating that a first paramount lien has been created on the assets of such bank being issued Fed. notes would explain why the IRS can size any and all assets of an individual in tax trouble. This paramount lien that has been created gives them the authority to freeze bank accounts and seize property.. am I correct in my thinking?

I would appreciate anyone chiming in with experience, understanding, or literature on this. I looked around on this forum for anything similar, but I didn't have any luck. I didn't comb this site though, so if it has already been brought up and discussed please provide a link to the thread.

Thank you all! I love this forum, and I deeply appreciate all of the effort and time involved to educate the new guy!