Thank you for bringing up 26CFR 1.1-1(c) jesse james.
Would you add the IRC definition of the term "income" as well?
Now my question is still not answered:
I would like to know by what contract or mechanism a US citizen becomes subject to the Internal Revenue Code?
Are you saying that the 14th Amendment makes US citizens automatically subject to any private law, such as title 26, of any private entity, such as the privately owned international banking cartel that is known as the Federal Reserve Bank, whose private collection agency is known as the Internal Revenue Service?
What, exactly, is the IRS internal of or to?
I don't see how the 14th Amendment can enslave a whole country full of people to someone's private law, i.e. title 26, when the Amendment which immediately precedes it, the 13th, prohibits enslavement?
Even though your case cites had to do with distinguishing between US citizens and people, they do not explain how people are turned into inferior US citizen subjects.
For the people to become subjects of a private entity which is not governed by the Constitution of the United States, they must have entered some contract with that private entity?
This cannot be the contract with the Social Security Administration, because the SSA claims to be a public entity of the United States Government, which claims to be by and for the people.
I would appreciate it if you would address these questions.
Thank you.