is it possible, in the context of this thread, for a party to grant a right, privelege, or authority it does not already possess to another party; or for such a party to remove from itself such a right, privelege or authority?

another way, does congress have the express authority to abdicate any of its enumerated priveleges? if the right originates with the creator and is then granted to men, is it possible for the right/privelege granted be removed by an entity of man's creation?

it appears to me the passage of the congressional act contradicts axioms of law not to mention sound logic.