I love letters like this. David hits it on the head with saying this is sophistry. If you ask me the letter makes the term 'lawful' an adjective for money. The code 12usc411 seems to use it as a noun 'lawful money' like it is a thing. I guess we go back to what CLINTON said, "it depends what the definition of is, is." But at the end of the day the note carries the term legal tender. Maybe anyone more familiar in the UCC can answer this. Since it is legal tender can I refuse it for a debt (that someone owes me) and still retain my claim to it because of that refusal? The reason I ask is that the coin that was just made legal tender in UTAH does not have to be accepted. I thought that went for all legal tender.Originally Posted by David Merrill
To me, we find the monetizing of sin (debt). There are no FRNs extant that did not arise from a loan.
This letter is thinly veiled sophistry. If it were true, what the Treasury spokesman says, then Congress could just change the verbiage and stump me and everybody else from the true meaning...
They shall be redeemed in lawful money on demand...
From Webster's dictionary: Lawful may apply to conformity with law of any sort (as natural, divine, common, or canon) <the lawful sovereign>. legal applies to what is sanctioned by law or in conformity with the law, especially as it is written or administered by the courts <legal residents of the state>
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