Order of Operations / Big Newbie Thread

[David Merrill]

I am pleased that we may be evolving past non-endorsement. I spoke to a fellow on the phone who discovered Title 12 USC §411 independently before 1998! His reading is even more blatantly obvious than mine/ours:

They shall be redeemed in lawful money on demand... at any federal reserve bank.

He and his wife made their demand to the closest Fed bank - the Big 12. He published this through whatever method, county court I believe and keeps a copy handy for the bank on the corner. He has never had to show that though. He and his wife wrote up a rather succinct demand and put it on both sides of a laminated card. For years whenever they bank for cash they show the laminated card and joke about how they Want the Good Stuff. There is always some banter with the tellers about go get the "lawful money" - no legal tender, counterfeit notes etc. - The Good Stuff!

Recently he discovered this site and called me all excited. I was listening in amazement while he went on about all these same things as I write about and sure enough, he wanted to know if I was on Overload yet, while I was thinking, This guy sounds more like me than I do!

I found it a very exciting that somebody came to the interpretation same as I but eight years earlier, and independently.

[Treefarmer]

.....

Treefarmer, thanks so much for your personal feedback! I did have one followup question:



Which would of course, cause them to deny/cancel any credit if you claim you don't make anything. A couple of things about this - How does this company's private credit equal the USA's Private Credit? Certainly I could have an agreement with a private entity for credit, right? Also, this wouldn't be 'income' anyway, so how does that relate to income tax? Just because I have a 'credit card', even from a bank that may have FED ties, how does that subject my normal common-law earnings from being taxable? It's not income - even under status-quo 'in bondage' filings, you don't report your credit lines. Just curious how everything fits together.

All I have to offer as an answer is my personal experience:

I used to have credit cards, and for many years I used them for internet buying and at gas station pumps. I always paid off the balance within the 30 day grace period, so I never paid any interest. (I've read somewhere that customers like me are considered "deadbeats" by the credit card companies.)

When I began redeeming lawful money and after I filed my Libel of Review, I called my credit card company on the phone.
I should add that their phone reps were available 24/7, they were extremely polite and helpful native American-English speakers, and I always received the most excellent service from them.
That time was no different. I requested that my accounts be closed. No problem the rep assured me, since all of them had a zero balance. Then she asked if I would mind telling her the reason why I wanted to close out my accounts; if I was not satisfied with their service?

I assured her that I had always received excellent service and that I had been very satisfied doing business with her company (VISA). I explained that I had to close my accounts because I was no longer able to abide by the cardholder agreement. I told her that since I had begun redeeming lawful money I no longer had any "income" as defined by the IRC.

She said, Oh OK, I see, then you do have to close your accounts.
She added that she hoped that I would consider doing business again in the future, if anything changed about my "income", and I assured her that I certainly would if that were to happen.

My situation was different from yours, in that I never owed an interest bearing balance, so I don't know how that works.

I would recommend you not use your credit cards for new purchases anymore, because if you have no taxable "income" then you are in breach of the contract. As far as paying off your existing balance goes though, I don't think that would be a problem.
As long as you are paying off your credit card debt on the agreed upon terms of the cardholder agreement, then your current income amount, or lack thereof, should not matter.

I do not know if the credit card company's definition of "income" is ultimately the same as the IRS's definition, or the SS Administration's or the Supreme Court's definition, but I just assume that it is, in case I ever have to explain my actions before a jury of my "peers".
If I tried to explain to a so-called jury, in a so-called court of law, that there are different definitions of income going around, whether or not I was right wouldn't make a difference. I'd be labeled a "conspiracy theorist", a threat to social and financial stability, and my so-called peers would be delighted to have me locked up in some slave-prison with all my worldly possessions taken away from me.

For safety's sake, I won't touch "credit" with a proverbial ten-foot pole, while I'm experimenting with lawful money, and claiming no taxable "income".

I hope this info helps in some way.
Bright blessings