Hello all!

I've spent an unspeakable number of hours reading this forum the past few weeks - especially over this weekend - and I'm looking to start applying what I've learned. I've stopped and started writing this, always going back through the archives and see if I could find the answer to a lot of things... However, there are still some key (and not-so-key) questions that I either haven't spotted, or haven't comprehended, so I'm hoping I can get a big list of answers from you fine folks. :)

I warn in advance that many of these will probably be very mundane or nit-picky. Many of you may end up saying that I "haven't spent as much time as I claim", just because some of these questions have been asked, and maybe some will ask for slight hand-holding (call it 'guided direction'). I apologize and only attribute it to being a part of the unwashed masses; and also to hopefully get some of the more buried answers in other multi-page threads out into something cohesive. Besides, some ideas seem to have changed (even if only slightly) over the months that these topics have been discussed.

In addition, there are a few different topics here (being that we're in the main forum), and thus long. If you'd like me to split these up into different topics/sub-forums, please let me know, otherwise hopefully between everyone who might respond, all questions can be answered.

Title 12 USC §411
- While I get the purpose and application of 12 USC §411 with regards to Lawful Money and the non-participation in public debt, and subsequent (non) tax liability, I'm wondering the scope of such liability if you do have -some- connection to it. As we know, the income tax is a tax on exercising federal privilege - however, some have taken it far to say that any accounts of private credit constitutes blanket federal privilege. Certainly having a mortgage (of which I have), credit cards (I have a couple, including two that are 'closed' but being paid off from living off them while unemployed), car loan, etc. doesn't subject my non-privileged work earnings to tax, does it? (And if so, please explain)

- There seems to be some disagreement (or perhaps 'non-uniformity') over signatures: signing First/Last vs First/Middle; using 'dba' verbiage; and including getting a new Driver's License to apply a different signature. What order of operations should one do to best apply 12 USC §411 as remedy; and which ones are 'good' to have but not necessarily mandatory?

For instance, if I were to change my signature on my bank's Signature Card (assuming they 'allow' me), they'd likely compare it to my DL signature. So then would changing the signature on the DL be the first step? Alternatively, does that even need to be a step? If I simply apply "Redeemed in Lawful Money, pursuant to Title 12USC §411" (Although I thought we are to Demand it? So many similar threads!) to any checks that I deposit or cash, am I now well on my way to exiting the public debt?

- At what point can I begin to apply this to any federal tax documents (i.e. 1040 and the like)? If I start redeeming in Lawful Money starting with my next paycheck (which I've already requested that direct deposit stop, until I can figure out if I can correct my Signature Card), would I be able to claim 'fraud by omission' for my previous years (of which I had been (and still general) believer in Hendrickson's findings)? The IRS is already on me about those (more below).

- Somewhat silly, but what about everyday exchange of LM? So I have just obtained a few $20 bills in Lawful Money from a paycheck, or maybe I was able to correct my signature card to demand all incoming and outgoing transactions in Lawful Money. If I use that money to buy something, whether a product or service, is the change I receive is also Lawful Money? Granted I don't think it'd be reasonable to report even if it wasn't, but it's one of those brain-teaser type questions I had been curious about. What if the recipient is a business that has to record a sale? Does it benefit them to know that the bill(s) are Lawful Money?

A Drivers License as a 'Proof of Competency'
This one is .... odd to me. A few users report that if they ever get pulled over, they say that the license is "proof of competency, not used for identification".
What does this phrase actually do/mean? Is this something that officers are trained to handle in some fashion? Further, what if the officer then asks for "identification"?

Refusal For Cause
The R4C is another odd one. If this really grants so much power as to 'throw out' parking tickets and such, why is this not just 'a thing' people do within our society? What actually makes R4C that powerful? Or is it only when the facts (such as name, street name) aren't exactly correct, leading to a sort of loophole? I'd be interested in a candid response.

B.S. 'Notice' of Levies
As far as I can tell, isn't fully within the scope of StS' "braintrust", but being that a number of users (including myself) are refugees of Camp Hendrickson, I figured I had nothing to lose by asking. In any case, long story short, a Notice of Levy was served and of course the payroll company that handles my job's.. well, payroll.. simply rolled over and is sending my pay to the IRS. A good 85% of it... which they've already taken from one pay period, and the next one is coming up shortly. Meaning I can't pay all the other 'private credit' mentioned above.

Given the wording of 26 IRC 6331(a) (conveniently omitted from the Notice) as well as the legal (case-law-borne) conclusion that Notices are not Levies, I don't believe this is legit. Does anyone have any bit of advice to at least A) Suspend/Halt collection at 85%, if not B) Fully terminate the Levy? The LH website has one example of a letter that seemed to work, though research on the that person revealed an actual court ordered levy recently. Further, I couldn't determine how the person in question got knowledge on where to send her complaints, and I feel just blindly following along could be perceived as disingenuous.

I also don't want to be a 'taxpayer' (especially at their nutball rates), and thought that the CtC 0-Return was the way to declare that. While a few here have claimed to have sloughed off that status, I haven't seen a lot of the same thorough explanation that other topics have benefited from. I don't think 'Exempt' is the way to go (especially not having a year's worth of LM redemption to prove), so does anyone have any personal thoughts or first-hand knowledge?

"Federal Privilege" in terms of public benefit
This question sort of encompasses everything. By declaring (and positively affirming) your status as a non-taxpayer - redeeming Lawful Money and not having tax liability - what sorts of benefits does one give up?
For instance, would I run into trouble having/maintaining a mortgage? Credit card? Car loan? (Private) Health/Auto insurance?
If I have credit on account at a bank in Lawful Money, do I give up the FDIC protection (if that's even useful in this situation) or more importantly, bank benefits in regards to protection against fraud/theft (including identity theft)?
My current account has overdraft protection in the form of an additional private credit line. Would that be a conflict of freedom from federal privilege?

I guess really the bottom-line question is that you guys and girls don't seem to be living shacks out in the woods (as some people would say is the only way to be income-tax-free), so what kind of downsides (perceived or actual) does this entail?


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Anyway, I know more questions have crossed my mind over the past few days, but I think I've asked enough of the folks here for one post. Any and all positive responses very welcome. Thank you for taking the time to both learn and educate!