Originally Posted by
Jethro
I'd prefer a more definite outcome, so let me try to focus onto one area: whether the "arbitration clause" is binding if one of the parties has engaged in unlawful conduct.
But what about a less extreme example, such as an allegation of fraud or conversion? It would seem to me that arbitration would be limited to matters within the contract. But since there is no such thing as a unlawful contract such as contractual provisions for fraud and conversion, any such acts a party does to the other must be deemed to be outside of the scope of a lawful contract and therefore not subject to a contractual arbitration clause.