Originally Posted by
george
hi walter,
it seems to matter to me because the funds transferred from anothers paypal in to yours were not redeemed lawful money so when you transfer those same funds in to anothers paypal when purchasing something from them, there was no lawful money involved in that transaction, only FRNs so what you pruchase still has that 1st lien, therfore it is not lawfully in your possesion.
does that make sense?