Doug555,
I agree with you, as seen below in my prior post (partial, from post #104). Even from the small sample size of your posts that I've seen, you state facts, law, accounting practices - 'stuff' that evidences your theories/methods. Why would anyone not back it up with EVIDENCE? As you stated here, the W-2 has various transactions that must be accounted for in the IRS ledger. Thus, the ALL transactions verbiage when RILM. And, where I believe you cited law to that effect, i.e. 'transactions'. My 'simple logic' example quoted below would seem to corroborate your theory/method. It all starts with GROSS PAY.
Via an addendum here (edit post), think about this: if I was a "troll", why would I do the following?:
Redeem my checks for the past 2 years (2013, 2014) ONLY on NET PAY, based on the pasted-within-this-thread letter sent to the U.S. Treasury I recorded at the County 2 years ago (w/o first doing extensive-enough research on the overall methods, law, and concepts - including the vital GROSS PAY/All-transactions method); THEN, just recently, ask for guidance on STSC on how to 'fill out' the Supporting Schedule to recover that money for those years, THEN, have Doug555 explain to me that a 'NET PAY' RILM was dangerous and educated me about 'all transactions' and RILM on GROSS PAY, THEN, look at what JohnnyCash has done (NET PAY reduction only) and THEN, ULTIMATELY decided from Doug555's explanation and warning that I have missed the GROSS PAY/All-transactions element, therefore deciding NOT to go ahead with a RILM 1040 Return for 2013 and 2014? So basically, 2 years of wasted RILM because of my misguided 'NET PAY' RILM procedure and hasty entry into this new endeavor. I'd rather be safe than sorry. I have over 20K in 6702 penalties including 1/2 of that in a wage levy to prove the hurt I have endured going with the PH CTC 'method'. I will gladly upload all that crap if needed, to prove my words.
I do find it odd to come up with a number greater than the starting Gross Pay, however it makes accounting sense if this is in fact a valid accounting method. I'm not well-versed enough in accounting overall, but I know that you DO have negative sides of a ledger to balance the other side. It would be nice if the IRS would specifically tell us but that will never happen.
I tend to believe you must account for the GROSS PAY in this (all transactions) because of this simple logic: if your employer paid you but did not make ANY deductions from your pay, but YOU had to make the deductions yourself and send them in, then the 'taxable event' is emphatically upon the GROSS PAY that you were paid. You would 1) RILM the GROSS PAY, and then 2) send the deductions in. I just don't see it happening on the NET pay alone. But there is 'NET pay success' out there, or as claimed, so go figure; but, does the 'NET pay success' make it technically correct? I tend to think not. Though I do believe Doug555 and his math relative to Gross Pay and the 1040, I'd like to verify the 'greater than gross pay' number from an accountant in a general accounting sense.