Originally Posted by
BLBereans
I am a bit confused here; could someone explain how redeeming lawful money was THE reason the foreclosure was stopped in this specific instance? For the record, I make demand in lawful money for ALL transactions, however, I am struggling to see how that demand staved off foreclosure for these people.
It seems that the wife had enough of the "conventional" info on her own so as to discard the husband's lack thereof. It appears the "loss mitigation application" went through only because the wife's tax info was sufficient without the husband's participation altogether. How is this considered a "win" by way of redeeming lawful money?
I imagine that the application would have been denied if the wife's tax info had fallen short of the requirements.
Am I missing something here?