Quote Originally Posted by allodial View Post
Those are remedies per contract law, equity or the like. That UCC is might be an abstraction or that makes references to underlying law rather than a source of law is the point of the thread.



A man-type being in a costume or uniform who carried what appeared to be a gun asked me where I lived? I replied that I travel around. So ultimately to clarify I asked him: "Are you asking me where I will put this body during sleep?" Mere men? Or sons of God? They want all to believe that they are only a stack of meat. One asked me "How tall are you?" I replied: "Are you asking me how tall this body is?" One pointed on a screen and asked me if a cluster of pixels was me. I replied: "How could I be a bunch of dots on a computer screen?"

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I've given this treatise before. Let the Code "speak" for itself.
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For example, if any instrument, bill or the like comes to "exist" as a result of fraud, coercion or of there is lack of meeting of the minds or lack of an enforceable contract the Code is a no-go. Contract law trumps. Refusal for cause relates to contract law and laws against involuntary servitude. It is not sourced in the Uniform Commercial Code which simply refers to or encodes a superior body of laws or principles.

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UCC 1-308 is a reminder of laws against involuntary servitude and principles of contract formation in that if you don't want to contract and you're confronted by an insane man in a uniform carrying a gun just can simply write "without prejudice" on what you're being coerced to sign rather than making a stink.
Yes, so one has a choice to promote it or not promote it. Also if I choose not to use it then it cannot supersede the law that I chose to use. Additionally it appears that even if I am using a different law then I can use certain terms within the code to communicate with someone who is using that law. ... am i reading that correctly?