What gives a man exclusive right to use anything? Especially if another man expended his energies to form it?Originally Posted by Anthony Joseph
so then in order to dissect the foregoing we must first comprehend what is Right, Possession and Use and furthermore what exactly is the County Registry? And who has Proprietory interest in the County Registry?
Right: A valid Right is a grant to a Person for certain Control, Benefit of Use or Privilege of particular Property. A Right, also known as Right of Use is equivalent to Property. As a valid Right is equivalent to Property, it presupposes the existence of Property, which implies the existence of a Trust relationship and a valid Trust deed defining the nature and limits of the Right for the Beneficiary. In the absence of Property, a Right cannot exist in reality.
Possession: is the intentional act and fact of occupation, use, employment or effective control of a Form of Matter. Possession is distinct from Ownership in that a Person who possesses a Form of Matter may have no rightful claim or title. [a tenant may possess a Form but has no rightful claim to the Form]
Use: is a skill employ of a right for some benefit. Hence, the ancient principle “Right of Use”. Right of Use is equivalent to Property. The Use of a Form of Matter assumes Possession. A Person, who takes Lawful Possession of a Form of Matter and Uses it over an accepted period of time, assumes those Rights of Use implied by such Use, whether or not such rights have yet been formalized by Deed or Title. [Example: If I build and maintain an access road across a Property [the Property is NOT the land] and I begin to use said Property, without any rebuttal, then I have assumed a Right of Use and therefore this is an unrebutted Claim to said Property and therefore my Right of Use stands.]
Property is any Right of Use expressed into a Trust relationship with other Forms of Matter whereby there exists a claimed Form of Ownership, Form of Trustee(s) administering the Form as Property and Forms of Beneficiaries. Hence Property is the Rights of an Owner to Use the Form of Matter, never ownership of the object or concept itself. Therefore Property is equivalent to Rights of Use of an Object or Concept [Form], not Rights of Ownership of an Object or Concept [Form]
The Ownership Rights of Property cannot exceed the Ownership Rights of the original Owner that conveyed the Form into the first Trust in the beginning. The Settlor made the Law and surveyed the Forms of Matter and the governing terms and conditions upon the surveyed Forms. The Beginning expresses a claim upon Forms of Matter.
Owner: is a Person who holds the rightful claim to a Form of Matter or title to Property. The Claim is recorded in a Registry of a Trust whereby the written claim produces Title to Property. And now go again and read what Property is the Right of Use.
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Now, there may be an existing agreement which will not allow the Owner to transfer interest or said another way, if the Owner transfers interest and a "loan" is outstanding, more than likely the Lender can evoke the "Due on Sale" clause and demand the entire outstanding balance due within 30 days of the notice of Loan Acceleration.
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Now, if in the foregoing you are stating that you have "somehow" removed the Property from a Trust Asset Registry - County Registry- and you have claimed the Property - within your Estate, then perhaps we have something a bit different. Of course, when I say you have claim the Property - have you issued forth a Survey upon the Form of Matter, have you created a Registry to document your Claim? Are you Trustee or Beneficiary? What exactly do you mean by Property?
There are many claims to the Roadways - and there are many districts that Overlay and Abut the existing Roadways. Is one claim more superior to the other, you bet. Thus the need for agreement.
Perhaps we need to discuss how one comes to Possess Property? And specifically does that Possession include Ownership? How does one come to Ownership of Property?
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