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  1. #8
    Thank you all for your input and responses! I greatly appreciate not having to go at this fully alone.
    I'm sorry that my original post was so unwieldy; I knew it would be, but there are so many questions to be asked, especially as it relates to trying to communicate these things to others; people always want to poke holes. And I just want to make sure I'm understanding as much as I can

    I applied the common 12 USC 411 verbiage to the backs of my first two checks today, copied and filed the front/back, and deposited them at my bank.
    Luckily I got the one teller that would recognize me, as I've been banking with them for many years, so she didn't even look at the back. I guess that's a good thing (at least as far as potential hassle is concerned). Has anyone ever been contacted after-the-fact by their bank when there was no previous concern/conflict?

    I want to amend my signature card eventually, but I don't have an interest-bearing checking account anyway (although I do have a credit line used for overdraft protection; I can see how that could be conflicting evidence, but it's currently saving me while I try to get out from under this damn unlawful Levy)

    Treefarmer, thanks so much for your personal feedback! I did have one followup question:

    A)
    Title 12 USC §411
    - While I get the purpose and application of 12 USC §411 with regards to Lawful Money and the non-participation in public debt, and subsequent (non) tax liability, I'm wondering the scope of such liability if you do have -some- connection to it. As we know, the income tax is a tax on exercising federal privilege - however, some have taken it far to say that any accounts of private credit constitutes blanket federal privilege. Certainly having a mortgage (of which I have), credit cards (I have a couple, including two that are 'closed' but being paid off from living off them while unemployed), car loan, etc. doesn't subject my non-privileged work earnings to tax, does it? (And if so, please explain)

    >> I do believe credit cards are private credit of the Fed, and you had to state your income on the card application. If your "income" has changed, because you are dealing in LM now for example, you have to notify your credit card company of that change.
    Which would of course, cause them to deny/cancel any credit if you claim you don't make anything. A couple of things about this - How does this company's private credit equal the USA's Private Credit? Certainly I could have an agreement with a private entity for credit, right? Also, this wouldn't be 'income' anyway, so how does that relate to income tax? Just because I have a 'credit card', even from a bank that may have FED ties, how does that subject my normal common-law earnings from being taxable? It's not income - even under status-quo 'in bondage' filings, you don't report your credit lines. Just curious how everything fits together.
    Last edited by Sabo; 02-11-12 at 09:34 PM.

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