Slaves were complete persons. Slaves were persons, not property -- original Constitu

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  • Gavilan
    Senior Member
    • May 2012
    • 346

    #1

    Slaves were complete persons. Slaves were persons, not property -- original Constitu

    The Democrats have been in full howl over how the Republicans read the Constitution on the House floor on Thursday. Here's the odd thing: they criticized the Republicans not because of what they read, but because of what they didn't read. And what they didn't read is stuff that's no longer in the Constitution, because it's been amended and is no longer valid or applicable


    The "three-fifths" clause clearly affirms the personhood of slaves.

    Check it out. Here is the relevant portion, with emphasis added:

    "Representatives and direct Taxes shall be apportioned among the several States which may be included within this Union, according to their respective Numbers, which shall be determined by adding to the whole Number of free Persons, including those bound to Service for a Term of Years, and excluding Indians not taxed, three fifths of all other Persons."

    Note how the original Constitution referred to slaves: not as "three-fifths" of a person, but as "other Persons," period. It's as plain and unambiguous as it can possibly be. Slaves, according to the original Constitution, were full-fledged persons. It says it right there.
  • allodial
    Senior Member
    • May 2011
    • 2868

    #2
    That is the same as with the Dredd Scott decision. The newspapers ran "Negroes Can't Vote" as if it was ever some new decision--slaves could not vote. Back in the 1700s, in North Carolina all free persons were citizens. It is said that Taney was a Roman Catholic and heavily part of that decision to promote lifetime chattel slavery of brown-skinned people. Keep in mind, tan skinned folks were voting and holding office in the colonies and in the states long before 1861. Racial segregation laws came AFTER 1861 and AFTER the Romanization of D.C. and AFTER the Papacy lost Papal States. Racial segregation laws didn't come to Tulsa, Oklahoma until 1891--the very same year a Roman Catholic church was established there.

    When it comes to falsely politicizing court cases or law, the mainstream media has often played the role of 'false interpreter'. Three fifths of all other "Persons" (uppercase, hmm doesn't sound like a slur). Persons could have been private citizens and nationals of the several states as opposed to the public citizens, quartered soldiers, residents, foreign ambassadors, etc. The word "negro" and "colored person" meant someone who was civilly dead or under a servitude or a felon (colored person). The term 'white' meant 'freeborn'. I suspect the idea was to keep someone from amassing 1M slaves and servants and counting them as 'credit' toward influence in Congress rather than to denigrate someone for their 'physical appearance type'.

    Similarly the media characterized the South as a bastion of racism and slavery (it may have become that way after the Civil War), but who ever mentions that was the first to Georgia banned slavery as far back as the 1700s?
    Last edited by allodial; 06-16-16, 12:47 AM.
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