Johnny, I don't have an agenda. Quite the opposite. Why do you always dismiss other people's ideas and interpretations? As you stated, you "just couldn't get past that...". That is total arrogance and ignorance. YOU know it all, so why should we think for ourselves? We'll just blindly follow the pied piper Johnny. With or without your success, people have questions, theories.
Despite your intelligence, you refuse to answer or address VALID questions/interpretations/theories...you name it. Case in point: you took a PARTIAL redemption for your FITW, where you 'let them keep' that $2100. So you VOLUNTEERED part of that FITW as FRN's, and redeemed only the NET portion as lawful money. My point was that I believe you have the right to redeem ALL THE FITW if recorded properly. I don't care WHAT you do. But YOU missed the point, as usual.
BTW, smart ass, I am prepared to file RILM returns for 2013 and 2014. But you didn't read that, did you? Because of course, you didn't need to. Ignore anything that does not suit YOUR agenda. The irony is that I am using the examples THAT YOU PROVIDED for 2013 and 2014. That FACT flies right by your prejudiced brain. Did you read that last sentence? Because I'm not sure if you glossed over this or not because my opinions are so insignificant.
And David Merrill, I disagree with you. Others learn by example. If no one provided examples or guidance on this great website, then everyone would have to make an educated guess as to how to prepare a 1040 for lawful money. I am not smart enough on my own to know that I could enter a negative "income" value on Line 21, let alone know THAT line can be used to record your lawful money demand. Just saying.
Q: Why is SOME or ALL of the FITW included in Line 22 "income" on the 1040, when SOME or ALL of it has been redeemed as lawful money? If it's RILM then that portion is not "income", right? VALID question.