Greetings!

I hope someone can bring some clarity to my situation.

Here's my story:

My husband is currently the only one bringing in income. I started to redeem lawful money writing on deposit slip on May 2015. My husband and I have a joint account. He's not interested in researching or understanding what I'm doing. Also, at his job, they do direct deposit. So it was impossible to write on back of check demanding for lawful money.

I'm the one that handles filing taxes. For 2015 tax season, I like to file using lawful money, but it's partial. I had made my demand and the bank sent me a letter stating that the FRNs is lawful money. I have one deposit slip, the letter from the bank, and copies of checks for bills I write out stating that I'm paying with lawful money. I made it transaction base.

I'm not sure if I should file using lawful money since it's my husband income and not my own.

Any thoughts please?

Thanks!