IRS recognizes Redeeming Lawful Money - Yes!!!

[David Merrill]

I have been busy but when the second testimony came in this morning I just had to take time to share:



Crosstalk:

I am pleased to point out that two suitors (at least) among us have had full refunds paid to back taxes. This tells us two important things.

1) the IRS attorneys have pondered the validity of our fraud by omission accusation and assessed the risk
2) they are definitely recognizing the validity of redeeming lawful money!

From this posting:

Good Morning

An update to LM return. I received a letter from our friends. They used return money (from 2011 return sent in oct) to pay off money owed from 2007. Now after doing that they sent a release of Lien for 2007 to me and the county. Now here is the kicker. I have paid off 2005 back taxes over a year ago (before LM) and have yet to receive a release of lien of that year (they filed liens on every year). It maybe that they are under watch by TIGTA and I believe they are getting rid of the evidence (lien) as quickly as possible once paid with LM. My point is I have not seen them perform this quickly when using fed credit. They know if you don't account for it right you will be looking for another job.

Bless You and Thank You LORD for hearing my prayers and giving me Your divine guidance. I am in awe of Your Might. What I struggled and flailed with for so long is nothing more then a flick of Your Pinky. This is my testament to Your Greatness. All is done in Your Name. Amen.

Think about it now.

The IRS is using the refunds to pay off back taxes and release federal tax liens.



Regards,

David Merrill.

[Treefarmer]

While that is undoubtedly a joyous event for the poor taxpayer, it does not guarantee that the IRS will not be sending notices and bills for frivolous filing penalties some time down the road. It is simply too early to draw any conclusions yet.

I hope this will never happen, but I just cannot shake the nasty feeling that "redeeming lawful money" means nothing to the IRS.

Reading old statutes, court cases and laws does no good in figuring out anything about government anymore, because government is not based in public or constitutional law anymore, but in private Roman law, implemented by secret treaties and executive orders, and administered by unelected bureaucratic agencies (IRS, FDA, EPA, FBI, DEA, FTC, to name only a few) who rule by tyrannical decree.

Since we don't know when some private Roman law becomes ratified by each STATE of the US, and the old statutes and laws don't seem to get repealed, only superseded, we cannot know what the rules are which are being applied by "government" at any given time.
This makes it so we have to always hire CPAs, tax preparers and attorners just to get by in life, which is more than likely by design.

[stoneFree]

The IRS, the attorners, and many professionals would like you to believe redeeming lawful money means nothing. They are mostly silent on it. The attorney's response to my LoR made no mention of "private credit of the Fed" nor "lawful money." Fortunately, the actions of the IRS towards everyone who redeems lawful money shows it means a great deal. From my own experience and from watching numerous others, I've witnessed complete success when the IRS is presented evidence of REDEEMED LAWFUL MONEY for the time period involved. And that goes for corporations too. 100 percent success. I challenge you to find anything defined "frivolous" in IRS documentation about how we are redeeming lawful money.

This indicates we really do have 2 forms of money (FR money & public money), and unless shown evidence you're using the non-excise kind, the IRS assumes you're using their money, cartel money, and continues running the scam.

Sounds like their slur campaign has been somewhat successful with you, Treefarmer. Do not let the seeds of doubt take root. You have expressed some knowledge of the power of propaganda in history. Conditioning is strong but it can be overcome.

[Treefarmer]

The IRS, the attorners, and many professionals would like you to believe redeeming lawful money means nothing. They are mostly silent on it. The attorney's response to my LoR made no mention of "private credit of the Fed" nor "lawful money." Fortunately, the actions of the IRS towards everyone who redeems lawful money shows it means a great deal. From my own experience and from watching numerous others, I've witnessed complete success when the IRS is presented evidence of REDEEMED LAWFUL MONEY for the time period involved. And that goes for corporations too. 100 percent success. I challenge you to find anything defined "frivolous" in IRS documentation about how we are redeeming lawful money.

This indicates we really do have 2 forms of money (FR money & public money), and unless shown evidence you're using the non-excise kind, the IRS assumes you're using their money, cartel money, and continues running the scam.

Sounds like their slur campaign has been somewhat successful with you, Treefarmer. Do not let the seeds of doubt take root. You have expressed some knowledge of the power of propaganda in history. Conditioning is strong but it can be overcome.

Time will tell for sure.
Meanwhile, my gut feeling tells me that the IRS does not see LM in the same way that some folks here do.
My gut feeling has a great track record, so I'm going with

[David Merrill]

While that is undoubtedly a joyous event for the poor taxpayer, it does not guarantee that the IRS will not be sending notices and bills for frivolous filing penalties some time down the road. It is simply too early to draw any conclusions yet.

I hope this will never happen, but I just cannot shake the nasty feeling that "redeeming lawful money" means nothing to the IRS.

Reading old statutes, court cases and laws does no good in figuring out anything about government anymore, because government is not based in public or constitutional law anymore, but in private Roman law, implemented by secret treaties and executive orders, and administered by unelected bureaucratic agencies (IRS, FDA, EPA, FBI, DEA, FTC, to name only a few) who rule by tyrannical decree.

Since we don't know when some private Roman law becomes ratified by each STATE of the US, and the old statutes and laws don't seem to get repealed, only superseded, we cannot know what the rules are which are being applied by "government" at any given time.
This makes it so we have to always hire CPAs, tax preparers and attorners just to get by in life, which is more than likely by design.

That the remedy is available and has been since 1913, being amended instead of abolished or repealed in 1933-34 is contrary to that sentiment. That the IRS processes a refund and applies it to past tax assessment is not a proof. The IRS can simply subtract that off the account later and rebill. But it shows an additional level of contemplation. Not only that but on the second suitor example the IRS released a lien.

[shikamaru]

Something else to consider:

Government takes the money it receives and invests a portion.
Over time, government has significant assets over and above their operational budget.
Right now, your city, county, State, and federal governments have a cumulative trillions of dollars in assets.

You can get more information via Walter Burrien and each administrative unit's CAFR (Comprehensive Annual Financial Report).

[David Merrill]

Something else to consider:

Government takes the money it receives and invests a portion.
Over time, government has significant assets over and above their operational budget.
Right now, your city, county, State, and federal governments have a cumulative trillions of dollars in assets.

You can get more information via Walter Burrien and each administrative unit's CAFR (Comprehensive Annual Financial Report).

I have looked about and found the CAFR's online. No CAFR that I have looked at shows any sign that BURIEN's theories have any merit. What I am looking for is a link showing on a CAFR, that is not presented by BURIEN, that backs up this theory of immense wealth that is not liquidated?

Could you please show us that?

[shikamaru]

I have looked about and found the CAFR's online. No CAFR that I have looked at shows any sign that BURIEN's theories have any merit. What I am looking for is a link showing on a CAFR, that is not presented by BURIEN, that backs up this theory of immense wealth that is not liquidated?

Could you please show us that?

Burien looks at the forest or rather all the CAFRs of all the governments and agencies out here.

If we take the aggregate of the over 50,000 governments; bureaus; agencies; and others in composite, it is quite substantial.

Granted reviewing a CAFR will take some knowledge of accounting and maybe even forensic accounting.

[David Merrill]

I am just asking somebody to please find it and show us.

http://www.colorado.gov/dpa/dfp/sco/cafr/cafr.htm

[shikamaru]

I am just asking somebody to please find it and show us.

http://www.colorado.gov/dpa/dfp/sco/cafr/cafr.htm

Take a look at FY2011, page 6:



That's 13,393.1 million or 13.3 BILLION dollars. That's just the remainder after the State of Colorado subtracts its assets from liabilities.

There are 50 States. How much in total assets do you think the 50 States have? We would be approaching a trillion dollars.

This doesn't even cover the counties, municipalities, districts, agencies, bureaus, federal, etc.
This doesn't cover the various funds that each of these governments have setup for pensions, insurance, institutional funds, etc.

Take the composite, the aggregate, the sum, of all of those and where do you think we'd wind up?

Perhaps this clears things up a bit?