Divided title vs Allodial title.
“The federal citizens has a right to hold property, but due to his status and his use of legal tender [Federal Reserve Notes] it appears he cannot hold the absolute title to or estate in the land as can white citizens and free inhabitants can (if they pay for the property rights with a lawful tender of gold or silver coin I would suspect.)”
Paying with gold or silver is not necessarily a perfect solution because you can’t buy what another man does not own. That there was a slap.
What if I had previously purchased the property with Federal Reserve Notes (FRNs)? I would apparently have equitable title to the property, but I would probably not have legal title to the property. Legal title would probably be held by the federal government and/or the Federal Reserve.
As a result of using FRNs, the land would fall into a trust relationship wherein I was the beneficiary and the federal government and/or Federal Reserve was the fiduciary. I could “use” my land, but they would control it.
Legal title moves by descent from one generation to another by means of wills. If some ancestor bought the land prior to 1968, maybe 1964 when we stopped using silver in our money and perhaps even prior to 1933 when we stopped using gold that ancestor bought both legal and equitable titles to the property.
Those titles would “descend” to his heirs by means of his last will and testament The heirs who never purchased the land with FRNs would retain both legal and equitable title and could therefore sell both titles to a buyer who bought with gold or silver rather than FRNs.
How do we redeem legal title from the government and/or Federal Reserve?
I’m not sure you’d even have to pay property taxes on land if you owned legal title to that land or that you could pay property taxes in the medium of FRNs on land if you owned both legal and equitable titles.
Property taxes paid for with FRNs only apply to property held by equitable title.
Might be true that property taxes on a property which the owner held legal title could be paid only with gold or silver. Article 1.10.1 of the federal Constitution: “No State shall . . . make any Thing but gold and silver Coin a Tender in Payment of Debts.”
Those who pay for property with FRNs only receive equitable title, and the legal title goes to the federal government and/or the Federal Reserve. You and I as purported “property owners” would actually own only equitable title to our land and properties.
The county tax assessor comes to determine how much tax you owed on your property that assessment if paid with FRNs would seemingly apply only to the equitable title to the property.
What about property taxes on the legal title to the property?
What if they discovered that legal title was, in fact, held by the Federal Reserve?
What if they assessed a property tax on the legal titles to all of the land held within their country?
What if they assessed a property tax in the form of gold on whoever holds legal title to the properties within their county?
Does the law read that whoever holds legal title is not obligated to pay any property tax on that property?
Would that infuriate the public when they discovered that
1) they don’t really “own” their property; and
2) they are obligated to pay property taxes while the real “owner” is not.
At least discover who owns legal title to properties within the county.
Do you see the apparent danger in FRNs? Once any property is paid for in FRNs, in theory, the legal title to that property may be lost to the “black hole” of government and/or Federal Reserve.
How do we redeem legal title from the government and/or Federal Reserve?”
I’m curious what would be with his use of lawful money vs. legal tender and converting fed property to private property.
Would buying the land with lawful money instead of FRN regardless who had use of it prior to the lawful money purchase, take full legal and equitable title?
Every contract to purchase states “for ten dollars and other considerations in hand”?
Twenty dollars is the minimum to guarantee a jury trial of right.
How is anything “paid for” with fiat promise to pay debt notes?
Or could it of been lawful, legal and debt free back then?