How can we equate the original doctrines of Christ coming to the British Isles and Ireland approximately four hundred years before Roman Catholic missionaries came with the "desert miracle" prophesied by Isaiah simply because an "eagle" is used as an analogy relating to this passage?

I am not refuting the premise of how the gospel reached the "United Kingdom" mind you, I am just practicing diligent discernment regarding the "jump" from that to equating England with Ephraim and America with Manasseh.

Again, this is NOT a dismissal of the premise; it is only a question posed in order to glean more evidence in scripture which allows NO ROOM for any other interpretation regarding when and where this "desert miracle" takes place.

Let's keep going...