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Thread: I Must Take a Closer Look at This

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  1. #11
    Quote Originally Posted by pumpkin View Post
    Illinois is a State, so what is a State?

    STATE, n. A people permanently occupying a
    fixed territory bound together by common-law habits
    and custom into one body politic exercising,
    through the medium of an organized government,
    independent sovereignty and control over all persons
    and things within its boundaries, capable of
    making war and peace and of entering into international
    relations with other communities of the
    globe.
    Illinois can refer to or mean: a nation; the State of Illinois; the Illinois government. To type "State of Illinois" and "state of Illinois" is not to type the same thing. Also, there could possibly be more than one "State of Illinois".

    Quote Originally Posted by pumpkin View Post
    STATE, n. A people permanently occupying a
    fixed territory bound together by common-law habits
    and custom into one body politic exercising,
    through the medium of an organized government,
    independent sovereignty and control over all persons
    and things within its boundaries, capable of
    making war and peace and of entering into international
    relations with other communities of the
    globe.
    Whose definition is that?

    Quote Originally Posted by pumpkin View Post
    And about the common law. Isn't the common law competent to give the remedy? I have checked with the recorder of the county. There is no record of any claim of any interest by the State or the county upon my property. Now the State having Admiralty jurisdiction is what I am getting at. State's have in rem, and in personam admiralty jurisdiction. What I am curious about, would admiralty utilize the states rules of court or precedent of the State's courts? How is it possible to tell if the in rem action concerning property tax is admiralty? It surely isn't common law, but I sure as hell would like to get it back into common law possible using the saving to suitors clause (and would that apply to a State court in admiralty jurisdiction?)
    Just because common law or law is applied doesn't mean the court proceeding won't be in equity (which follows the law). You know its an in rem admiralty proceeding because (in case you missed what I typed):

    FORECLOSURE IS A CREATURE OF ADMIRALTY FORECLOSURE IS A CREATURE OF ADMIRALTY FORECLOSURE IS A CREATURE OF ADMIRALTY FORECLOSURE IS A CREATURE OF ADMIRALTY FORECLOSURE IS A CREATURE OF ADMIRALTY FORECLOSURE IS A CREATURE OF ADMIRALTY FORECLOSURE IS A CREATURE OF ADMIRALTY FORECLOSURE IS A CREATURE OF ADMIRALTY

    ...just like icebergs are associated with the Arctic...

    FORECLOSURE IS A CREATURE OF ADMIRALTY FORECLOSURE IS A CREATURE OF ADMIRALTY FORECLOSURE IS A CREATURE OF ADMIRALTY FORECLOSURE IS A CREATURE OF ADMIRALTY FORECLOSURE IS A CREATURE OF ADMIRALTY FORECLOSURE IS A CREATURE OF ADMIRALTY FORECLOSURE IS A CREATURE OF ADMIRALTY FORECLOSURE IS A CREATURE OF ADMIRALTY.

    Even the most rudimentary book on Admiralty will tell you this. You probably won't find foreclosure associated with any other jurisprudence than admiralty. That is how they tip you off. Specific terms are associated with specific topics of law. So if you hear a term for admiralty well there ya go, they are proceeding in admiralty if they are foreclosing. Simple as that. Its not necessarily a secret conspiracy, its really that obvious, if one bothers to inspect.

    Quote Originally Posted by David Merrill View Post
    Keep the transaction amount private.
    Or maybe even keep the entire transaction private and maybe even the land itself? With a cash transaction that might be possible (perhaps that is why they have conjured up such economic distress, to make it difficult for people to do cash transactions on real property?).

    Related:
    The Foreclosure of Vessel Mortgages In Admiralty
    Last edited by allodial; 04-06-16 at 03:18 AM.
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