Originally posted by Seosaidh
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I have tried to ask David these questions on another forum, but he felt he was being moderated and couldn't answer my questions, so I brought them here. I have done extensive research on my own time, read almost all Davids relevant posts in other forums, watched his videos, read others who have the same view, and still can't understand why the conversion renders the income tax free. It really should be a simple answer for an expert, yet I still haven't got one. If I am to rely on a position, I want to know what part of the tax law covers it. David is not a lawyer, and yet he seems to be providing tax advice, based on his own interpretations or the law. If this goes "t**s up (so the saying goes, no offense intended)" David will not be in a position to represent me in a court.
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